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Question of the day
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Question of the Day (31-Jan-19)

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As an allegory of literary erudition, Philologia appears in 5th-century post-classical literature (Martianus Capella, De nuptiis Philologiae et Mercurii), an idea revived in Late Medieval literature (Chaucer, Lydgate). The meaning of "love of learning and literature" was narrowed to "the study of the historical development of languages" (historical linguistics) in 19th-century usage of the term due to the rapid progress made in understanding sound laws and language change, the "golden age of philology", taken to last throughout the 19th century, or "from Friedrich Schlegel to Nietzsche". In British English usage, and in British academia, "philology" remains largely synonymous with "historical linguistics", while in US English, and US academia, the wider meaning of "study of a language's grammar, history and literary tradition" remains more widespread.

What is implied by the passage about philologists?
OPTIONS
 
 1)That there aren’t enough philologists left in the world.
 2)Historical linguists are very different from philologists.
 3)Nietzsche was the best philologist of his time.
 4)That philologists are often literary scholars.

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